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Our client a theatre director has been resident in the UK for 30 years but has retained his Australian domicile without as yet any HMRC enquiry.
He is now selling the two properties that he has owned for many years in Australia for substantial sums. Apparently one (which is worth a lot less than the other) is subject to Australian capital gains tax whereas the other is not.
The client has hitherto not remitted non-UK income other than within his professional earnings.
Readers' views would be appreciated on the following points.
First the client plans to remit the proceeds of selling the flat which is subject to local capital gains tax. Although the proceeds of sale of the two flats will be segregated is there a risk of HMRC maintaining that a remittance to the UK of the flat sale...
